logos & rhema

From the New Testament writings, there are relatively few occasions when the {koine} Greek word ρημα [rhema] is used to refer to declarations of God. Two examples would be: 'he who is of God is hearing His word/declarations' from John 8:47, and 'the good {ideal tasting} word/declaration of God' from Hebrews 6:5. More broadly, rhema is used for many different declarations, good or evil.} To contrast, many more instances where the word λογος [logos] is used, often translated to the English 'word of God'.

Logos brings more meaning than just a word on a page. The scope of the concept, especially as used in scripture, can reach to mean 'completed expression' in its totality, that is to say, 'all that words that I have spoken and written' -- everything communicated -- is the solution; is my 'word'.

The One who is Logos is the expression and utterance of God himself, John 1:1-5, 14.

The preached expressions of the apostles are referred to, by Luke, as 'the word of God'. This can be seen in Acts 12:24; 13:7; 13:44; 13:46; 13:49; 18:11; 19:20, and that the word of God was not only in the mouth of the apostles but also 'among them', 18:11, and 'grew' {lit: upon need, also showing strength}, 19:20.

Ultimately, John (writing the Revelation of Christ), in documenting his visions, refers to the opening of heaven and the revelation of One who is called 'Faithful and True' and his name is called 'The Logos of God', Revelation 19:11-13. That is to say, He is the full expression of God's {the Father's} utterance {in resolution}.

He is what is communicated by God. He is what/who is expressed by/in the apostles {and other disciples of His}. And He is what the scriptures are all about. So much so, that those scriptures, in their totality, can also be referred to as 'the Word of God'.

But it is to be suggested that the expression (Word of God) only becomes valid once the scripture {in its totality} is fulfilled. That is why the scripture does not refer to itself as such.

In his commentary to Paul's epistle to the Philippians, Polycarp refers to "τα λογια του κυριου" which, literally translated, would be 'the word of the Lord'. However, the English translation typically has 'the oracles of the Lord', as the word that Polycarp used is "logia", not logos.

It is written, "Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every rhema that proceedeth out of the mouth of God." Matthew 4:4

The expression "word of God" (Hebrew "dabar elohim/דְּבַ֥ר אֱלֹהִֽים") elohim/דְּבַ֥ר אֱלֹהִֽים seems to be first used by Samuel. "And as they were going down to the end of the city, Samuel said to Saul, bid the servant pass on before us, (and he passed on), but stand thou still a while, that I may show you the word {arrangement/solution/resolve} of God. I Samuel 9:27.

The expression was further used by the scribes afterward. "But the word {arrangement/solution/resolve} of God came unto Shemaiah the man of God, saying,..." [I Kings 12:22]. "And it came to pass the same night, that the word {arrangement/solution/resolve} of God came to Nathan..." [I Chronicles 17:3]

And Jesus answered him, saying, It is written, That man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God. Luke 4:4. From here, Jesus quoted Deuteronomy 8:3 which, in Hebrew, does not have the word "word" [dabar {arrangement}]. It could perhaps have been translated as "every thing {provided} that proceeds from the mouth of God."

In or around 1539, when King Henry VIII decided to allow an English translation, after many had tried and lost their lives, burned at the stake, etc., there was a drawing of the King himself, as handing down the Authorized Bible to the people with the words, 'Word of God' on the cover. It was clearly a form of propaganda showing the Kings support and his authority of the church, and also showing the people cheering their King. You can see this drawing in the 1539 Great Bible, however the words on the drawing are in Latin. (Verbum Dei).

In the unique case where Christ is called the Logos of God, John begins his gospel with, "In the beginning was the Word (Logos)". Obviously a reference to Gen. 1:1 where Jesus existed before {was active in} creation.

The Greek word for 'written' is 'graphas' {γραφης} and is used 51 times in the New Testament always meant as the written Scriptures of the Old Testament {sacred writings}. One of the surest ways to tell they are not interchangeable is (simply) that logos is masculine, graphas is feminine. Why does it matter? Because the Bible did not die on the cross, shed its blood for the redemption {forgiveness} of our sins, nor was it resurrected so that we may have eternal life. Pastors who stand before a congregation holding their Bibles in the air saying, "This is the word of God" could be distracting certain believers from having a relationship with the Son of God, instead pointing them to be students of the Bible. There is life in the Son. Jesus told the Pharisees in John 5:39-40,"You examine the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is those very Scriptures that testify about Me; and yet you are unwilling to come to Me so that you may have life." The Bible points us to Jesus, it never replaces Him.

Reading Bullinger's Lexicon about the word "logos" - it was very detailed about it being a spoken word, etc. Then for some odd reason he inserts the followings paragraph: "But further, inasmuch as the Logos, as the Living Word, became so to manifest and reveal Deity to us, 'the written Word' was given with the same object and for the same purpose. Hence, it is sometimes difficult to know which is intended, as the same things are predicated of each." Then he goes on to say, "that both: are the truth, are everlasting, are life, save, purify, beget to new life, sanctify, shall judge and are glorified."
Despite Bullinger's opinion, Jesus cannot be reduced to a text. He remains to be the once-crucified, living, begotten Son of God.